 |
| Photo courtesy of www.covenantofgracechurch.org |
Okay, time to take a deep theological dive today.
It will be okay...trust me. If Lucy and Linus can talk about theology, you and I can, too.
Today's post may seem to be esoteric. But please let me assure you that it is not. Don't let theological terminology intimidate you. For how you and I both understand these concepts will profoundly effect how we live--how we think and feel, and the choices we make--almost every day of our lives.
Today we are going to dissect the concept of "imputed" and "imparted" righteousness and how they differ. Now, before we go any further, we must define both of these terms. Then, we will see which kind of righteousness we see in the pages of Old and New Testament Scripture, and finally, discuss how we ought to live in response to what we find.
Now let's consider these terms using the Merriam-Webster dictionary:
- "Impute" means "to credit, ascribe, attribute, reckon"
- "Impart" means "to give something (or a quality) to someone; to grant; transfer; infuse"
Now let's just explore what these two terms mean in a general sense. If something is imputed to someone, then they truly don't possess that "thing" but instead have all rights and access to it (as if they did), based upon the authority of the person doing the crediting. Conversely, if someone is imparting something to someone, they are truly giving it over to them, at least in some measure.
Okay, stick with me for a bit. I like to think of it like my children's weekly allowance. Depending upon their ages, my children receive anywhere between $1 to $2.50 each week for completing their chores. Now, I choose not to actually hand out cash (for them to then lose); instead, I credit their accounts using my Smart Allowance app on my phone. That way, when we are at a check out register, I pay for their purchases using my cash or charge and then adjust their new balance on the app. Now hold onto that analogy--we will revisit it in a moment.
Now, let's think of these two terms--imputed and imparted--in a theological sense as it pertains to righteousness. Is the righteousness of Christ, that which places us in right-standing with a holy God, imputed or imparted to us? Put another way, is Christ's righteousness credited to us...or transferred to us? What do we see in the Scriptures?
Well, the first time we see the word "righteousness" in the Bible is in Genesis with Abram. Check it out in Genesis chapter 15, starting with verse 1:
After these things the word of the Lord came to Abram in a vision: “Fear not, Abram, I am your shield; your reward shall be very great.” 2 But Abram said, “O Lord God, what will you give me, for I continue childless, and the heir of my house is Eliezer of Damascus?” 3 And Abram said, “Behold, you have given me no offspring, and a member of my household will be my heir.” 4 And behold, the word of the Lord came to him: “This man shall not be your heir; your very own son shall be your heir.” 5 And he brought him outside and said, “Look toward heaven, and number the stars, if you are able to number them.” Then he said to him, “So shall your offspring be.” 6 And he believed the Lord, and he counted it to him as righteousness." (emphasis mine)
Now let's flip over to the New Testament and see how Paul expounds upon this particular passage in Romans. Paul's discussion of righteousness spans from Romans 3:28 - 5:21, but we will just focus on the first few verses of chapter 4:
"What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, discovered in this matter? If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about—but not before God. What does Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.” Now to the one who works, wages are not credited as a gift but as an obligation. However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their faith is credited as righteousness. David says the same thing when he speaks of the blessedness of the one to whom God credits righteousness apart from works: “Blessed are those whose transgressions are forgiven, whose sins are covered. Blessed is the one whose sin the Lord will never count against them.” Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham’s faith was credited to him as righteousness. Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, or before? It was not after, but before! And he received circumcision as a sign, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them. And he is then also the father of the circumcised who not only are circumcised but who also follow in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised."
The Greek word "logizomai" which is translated as "reckon, count, to consider, to credit" appears eight times in the above twelve verses. Paul is emphatically explaining that this righteousness is apart from the works of the law, so that none of us can boast. It seems to be an alien righteousness--not coming from us and what WE do, but coming from something outside of us, but none-the-less accredited to us. Note also verse five which states: "to the one who does not work but trusts." And we must never minimize the fact that Abram's righteousness was accredited to him before circumcision; he was deemed righteous apart from, and even prior to, his performing a work of the law.
In truth, as we consider the whole of Scripture, noting where the term "righteousness" is discussed in its context, we see that it always relates to what Christ has done and not what we do.
This is pretty sobering reality, and one that is not popular with every pillar of Christendom. You see, the view of man that the Bible paints is not a pretty one. The prophet Isaiah states
"All of us have become like one who is unclean, and all our righteous acts are like filthy rags; we all shrivel up like a leaf, and like the wind our sins sweep us away." Isaiah 64:6, emphasis mine
And so, we must ask, does all of this really matter? I mean, does an understanding of "imputed" vs. "imparted" righteousness really effect daily life? Well, let's go back to the analogy of my children's allowance. If something (such as allowance money or righteousness) has been imparted to us, then it is ours to do with as we choose--whether to lose it or squander it--like my children would if I handed them cash! However, if that thing has been imputed to us, then it is safe and secure and rests in the person who holds the authority to impute, whether that be a parent with a bank account or the God of the Universe. And so, if our righteousness--our right-standing with God--is imputed to us, then we cannot lose it. We can live and move in the freedom and joy of eternal security. Conversely, if our righteousness is imparted to us, then we can lose it by what we do and say and think. At any point in time, we do not know where we stand with God--have we been good enough or sinned too much? What does our account balance of righteousness show? We will never know, perhaps not even on our deathbeds! And that is a disheartening and discouraging way to live, and one that strips our joy and peace that is ours in Christ.
So, in closing, I think that it is imperative that we investigate these two terms of righteousness for ourselves and fully understand their implications. For whether we realize it or not, we all live in tandem with our theology, just like that Peanuts comic strip shows us above. Will we live with joy and peace? Or will we live with guilt and despair? The answer to that question, I believe, is at the heart of our personal theology of biblical righteousness.
No comments